Okay, time to vent about other people's driving. This issue comes up every single day for me as I leave work. Here's the situation:



Car A is oncoming traffic. Car B is sitting in the parking lot for Pep Boys. I am in Car C, needing to do a U-Turn.

Now then...it's been a long time since I took Driver's Ed, but I know the rules of the road. It is obvious that both B and C yield to A. But once A goes about its merry way, who has the right-of-way?

It's pretty clear that C does, right? A car entering the roadway from a driveway or alley has to come to a full stop. There is an implied stop sign even when it is not explicitly marked. A car doing a u-turn has an implied yield.

If there were no Car A, Car C would not need to come to a full stop. But even if there were no Car A, Car B would be required by law to come to a full stop. This is the law, at least in Texas. So a car with a stop should always yield to a car with a yield, right? And a car not in the roadway should always yield to a pedestrian or vehicle already in the roadway, correct?

At least that's what the Texas Drivers Handbook says. Under Right-of-Way is this situation:

Situation 6—Private roads and driveways.—When entering or crossing a road, street, or highway from a private road, alley, building, or driveway after stopping prior to the sidewalk, you shall yield the right-of-way to all approaching vehicles and pedestrians.

And yet every fraggin day, some jerk-off pulls out as I'm making the u-turn and nearly hits me! A-holes!

Nothing extremely informative here...just a bit of venting. Unless of course I am extremely misinformed on my interpretation of driving laws. In which case, feel free to set me straight.